M.D. is a 50-year-old woman whose routine mammogram showed a 2.3 x…

Question M.D. is a 50-year-old woman whose routine mammogram showed a 2.3 x… M.D. is a 50-year-old woman whose routine mammogram showed a 2.3 x 4.5 cm lobulated mass at the 3:00 position in her left breast. M.D. underwent a stereotactic needle biopsy and was diagnosed with infiltrating ductal carcinoma that was both estrogen and progesterone receptor positive. The staging workup was negative for distant metastasis. Her final staging was stage IIB. She had a modified radi- cal mastectomy with lymph node dissection. The sentinel lymph node and 11 of 16 lymph nodes were positive for tumor cells. An implanted port was placed during surgery. She is prescribed a chemother- apy regimen of six cycles of CAF (cyclophosphamide [Cytoxan], fluorouracil [5-FU], and doxorubicin [Adriamycin]).1.   Describe the biopsy technique used to diagnosis M.D.’s cancer.2.   Discuss the implications of a positive sentinel node.3.   Using the TNM staging system, what would her classification be?4.   What is the significance of her hormone receptor status?5.   Surgical intervention is the primary treatment for breast cancer. Describe the surgicalprocedure that M.D. had.1.   Describe the biopsy technique used to diagnosis M.D.’s cancer.2.   Discuss the implications of a positive sentinel node.3.   Using the TNM staging system, what would her classification be?4.   What is the significance of her hormone receptor status?5.   Surgical intervention is the primary treatment for breast cancer. Describe the surgicalprocedure that M.D. had.6. M.D. asks you why she has to have chemotherapy with so many drugs if the surgeon removed all of the cancer. How would you respond?7.   Compare the drug actions of cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan), fluorouracil (5-FU), and doxorubicin (Adriamycin). Health Science Science Nursing NUR 112 Share QuestionEmailCopy link Comments (0)