Is Kant correct that we should only act according to rules that can…

Question Answered step-by-step Is Kant correct that we should only act according to rules that can… Is Kant correct that we should only act according to rules that can be universalized?  Is he correct that we should never use another person solely as a means to our ends?  Is Moloney correct that torture always uses another person solely as a means to an ends? Arts & Humanities Philosophy PHIL 4700 Share QuestionEmailCopy link Comments (0)